This question may be very basic, but I dont know how to get the next inverse laplace's transform:
$${\scr L}^{-1}\left\{\frac{1}{(s-1)^2}\right\}$$
I can only use these two formulas: ${\scr L}\{e^{at}\}=\frac{1}{(s-a)}$ and ${\scr L}\{t^n\}=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}$
I can also use all the laplace's transform properties but the definition of the laplace transform definition
From the definition we have the phase shift,$$ F(s):={\scr L} \{ f(t) \}\implies {\scr L} \{ e^{at} f(t) \} = F(s-a) $$
Therefore $$ {\scr L}\{e^tt\}(s) = {\scr L}\{t\}(s-1) = \left\{\frac 1 {s^2}\right\}(s-1) = \frac 1 {(s-1)^2} $$
Giving,
$$ {\scr L^{-1}}\left\{ \frac 1 {(s-1)^2} \right\} = e^tt $$