Integrating with respect to a variable and then to the other one, things look pretty
complicated, but I'm sure you have ideas that might simplify the job to do here.
This time we're talking about
$$\int _0^1\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+x y (x+y)} \ dx \ dy$$
The bounty moment: after 2 years and 8 months from the releasing moment of the question, it's time for a 300 points bounty for finding the simplest closed-form of the integral!
Supplementary question: Here is an extension of the question for those with a need for more challenging questions.
Calculate
$$\int _0^1\int _0^1\cdots\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+x_1 x_2\cdots x_n (x_1+x_2+\cdots +x_n)} \ \textrm{d}x_1 \ \textrm{d}x_2\cdots \textrm{d}x_n, \ n\ge 2.$$
Last but not least, special greetings to Cleo!
Why do you think that there is a closed form? Most integrals do not have one, and Maple cannot find one. The numerical value is 0.79896482380785081628946784922318984550713669761340, which is not recognised by the Inverse Symbolic Calculator (https://isc.carma.newcastle.edu.au/advancedCalc). Given these facts, you should assume that there is no closed form unless you have a very good reason to think otherwise.