This is a simple limit problem, but I don't understand why this approach is logically wrong. $$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{x}\ln{\frac{e^{x+1}}{e+x}} \\ = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\ln{e^{x+1}}-\ln{(e+x)}}{x} \\ = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(x+1)\ln{e}-\ln{(e+x)}}{x} \\ = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(x+1)-\ln{e}}{x} \\ = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(x+1)-1}{x} \\ = 1$$
All I did is switching $\ln{e}$ to $1$, and making $\ln{(e+x)} \to 1$ which seems logical to me, but it gave me wrong answer. What am I doing wrong here?
A simpler example where similar substitution does not work will be $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{e-(e+x)}{x}$. Partially plugging $e+x \rightarrow e$ will result in $\lim \frac{0}{x} = 0$, whereas the answer should be $\lim \frac{-x}{x} = -1$.
There are cases when we can do such step. Addition and multiplication works: $\lim_{x \rightarrow h} A(x) + B(x) = a+b$ if $\lim_{x \rightarrow h} A(x) = a < \infty$ and $\lim_{x \rightarrow h} B(x) = b < \infty$ (similarly for $\times$ operation). Division only works when $b \ne 0$ (which in your question, is not). It also works under continuous function chain: $\lim_{x \rightarrow h} A(B(x)) = A(b)$ if $A(x)$ is continuous on $b$.