My book has a confusing residue calculation:
$$\int_c \frac{4-3z}{z^2-z}dz$$
$$\int_c \frac{4-3z}{z(z-1)}dz$$
So when evaluating the residue at z = 0 $$Res_{z=0} [ \frac{4-3z}{z(z-1)}]$$
I don't understand how subbing z=0 gives us this? Shouldn't the denominator just be 0 since when z=0 the whole denom = 0?
$$= [\frac{4-3z}{z-1}]_{z=0} = -4$$
The notation $\operatorname{res}_{z=a}f(z)$ means “residue of $f$ at $a$”. So, $\operatorname{res}_{z=0}\frac{4-3z}{z(z-1)}$ stands for the residue of $\frac{4-3z}{z(z-1)}$ at $0$ (which is indeed $-4$).