This is not the problem I am trying to solve, but if this result were true, then the problem would be easier to solve.
Let ($X$, $d$) be a complete and totally bounded metric space and let $B$ $\subseteq$ $X$ be a bounded set of isolated points. If it happens that B is an infinite set, then $B$ must contain limit point(s) by boundedness of $B$. Please note that we cannot assume that $B$ is compact.
So define $C$ = {$y$ $\in$ X | $y$ is a limit point of $B$}. It is clear from the definition of isolated point that there are no points of $B$ in $C$.
My question is, Is $C$ necessarily a finite set?
As I mentioned in the title of the post, I would like the answer to be, yes, but I am not convinced that this may be true.
So if I start out by assuming that $C$ contains infinitely many points in $X$, then $C$ itself must have limit point(s) otherwise $C$ would be unbounded, which would then imply that $B$ is unbounded. So let $y_0$ be some limit point of C. It is clear that $y_0$ $\in$ $C$ since for any neighborhood $N$ of $y_0$, there exist points of C, not equal to $y_0$ that are in $N$. If $a$ $\in$ $C$ is such a point, there are, of course points in $B$ arbitrarily close $a$. Hence $y_0$ is a limit point of B, so by definition of $C$, $y_0$ $\in$ $C$. From this it follows that $C$ contains its limit points. If we are to prove that $C$ must be finite, one way would be to somehow show that there must exist a point $b$ $\in$ $B$ such that $b$ is a limit point of $B$, i.e. $b$ $\in$ $C$. Or equivalently, can we find some subsequence in $B$ that converges to a point in B. This would be a contradiction.
If it is true that $C$ can be infinite, must the set of limit points of that set be finite, etc.?
It's certainly possible to have infinitely many limit points of $B$. Consider a set of convergent sequences, all disjoint with distinct limits (and $B$ is the set of sequence points without those limits, and the limits of the sequences are the limit points of $B$).