It is fairly easy to show that a perfect number $\Gamma$ cannot be written in the form $\Gamma=n^2$ for integer values of $n$. However, does this property hold true for multi-perfect numbers---that is, integers $R$ such that $\sigma(R)=kR,$ for $k>2$? This question is out of pure curiosity, as I can not find an answer online.
UPDATE:
I now know that for even $k$ and/or an even $k$-perfect number $R$ the answer is no, as it follows from contradiction by assuming $R=n^2$ and then computing $$\sigma(R)=\prod_{i=1}^{l}\sigma(p_i^{2a_i}), $$ where $n=\prod_{i=1}^lp_i^{a_i}$ (here all $p_i$ are distinct primes and all $a_i\geq1$).
Given this result, my question is now whether the same is true for odd $k$ and, assuming they exist, an odd $k$-perfect number $Q$. That is, if both $k$ and $Q$ are odd in $\sigma(Q)=kQ,$ is there a way to show that $Q$ cannot be a perfect square? I believe this could be done by considering the number of divisors of $Q=\prod_{i=1}^rp_i^{a_i}$---given by $$d(Q)=\prod_{i=1}^r(a_i+1)$$ and showing that at least one $a_i\equiv1\pmod2,$ but I have not found any results similar to this online.
I have found references to a proof that any odd triperfect is a square.
See here and here. They both reference the following German paper:
H.-J. Kanold, "Über mehrfach vollkommene Zahlen. II," J. Reine Angew. Math., v. 197, 1957, pp. 82-96. MR 18, 873.
I'm in the process of translating and extracting the relevant portion and will edit that in soon.
Update:
From p. 88-89, here's what I have extracted:
This is what we want since $sn \equiv 1 \pmod 2$ means $n$ is odd (since $sn$ is odd implies both $s$ and $n$ are odd) and $\alpha_i \equiv 0 \pmod 2$ means that $n$ is a perfect square (since each prime power is even).
To explain this a bit more, suppose some $\alpha_j$ is odd and use the following formula (reference):
$$\sigma\bigl(p_j^{\alpha_j}\bigr) = 1 + p_j + p_j^2 + \cdots + p_j^{\alpha_j}.$$
Since $n$ is odd, we know $p_j$ must be odd and hence any power of $p_j$ is also odd. Thus we have an odd number of odd integers plus the remaining $1$. Thus the sum is even, which implies $sn$ is even. This is a contradiction. Therefore, all the $\alpha_i$ must be even and hence $n$ is a perfect square.
Edit: (Clarification of $(s-1)$-fold perfect number notation)
This is the first couple sentences from the paper:
I have translated this as:
This means what they refer to as a "$(s-1)$-fold perfect number" is what we would call an "$s$-perfect number". This understanding also agrees with the proof.