Can we have a sequence $a_n$ that has an infinite amount of 1's, yet still converge to a number $\neq$ 1?
I know that the sequence of $(-1)^n$ from 1 to $\infty$ does not converge, but can this be remedied if we exclude the negative numbers?
2026-04-01 12:51:57.1775047917
Can a sequence contain an infinite number of numbers 1 or above and still converge to a non 1 value?
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Nope. If an infinite sequence has a limit $L$, then any infinite subsequence has the same limit $L$.