Can a well-ordered set isomorphic to a proper subset of itself?

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  • Can a well-ordered set isomorphic to a proper subset of itself? Give an example or disprove it.

My answer: Yes We can. Consider $2\mathbb{N}\subseteq\mathbb{N}$. Let $f$ be the function from $\mathbb{N}$ to $2\mathbb{N}$ defined by $f(n)=2n$. We can see easily $f$ is isomorphism.

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Yes, it's fine, except that you should write “let $f$ be the function…”

More generally, $\mathbb N$ is order isomorphic with every infinite subset.