This question is continued from a previous thread I started, but it had more than one question so I had to move the other question here.
For this example consider an injective map $f: A \to 2^A$ then for each element $a\in A$ $\exists$ $f(a)\subseteq A$.
But does this also mean $f(a)\subseteq 2^A$?
I ask this because when writing out a simple numerical example of such a set, say $A=\{{ 7,8\}}$ then $2^A=\{{\varnothing,\{{ 7\}},\{{ 8\}},\{{7,8\}}\}}$, however since each $f(a)$ is an element of $2^A$ then we must have $f(a)\subseteq 2^A$ since any set $X$ is always a subset of itself: $X\subseteq X$ right?
Thank you.
Best Regards.
It can, but it usually isn't.
We always have $\varnothing\in2^A$ and also $\varnothing\subset2^A$. So there exists an element of the power set $2^A$ which is also a subset of the power set $2^A$.
On the other hand, in your example, $\{7\}\in2^A$, but $\{7\}\not\subset2^A$.