The Wikpedia article Regular cardinal contains the following weird sentence:
An infinite ordinal $\alpha$ is regular if and only if it is a limit ordinal which is not the limit of a set of smaller ordinals which set has order type less than $\alpha$.
I'm confused by the double-which grammar and I'm not sure if I understand the statement at all. If an ordinal is the limit of a set (like $\omega$ is the limit of the set of finite ordinals), how can this set be smaller then the ordinal itself? I thought the ordinal is the set.
And is there even a difference between "is smaller" and "has order type less than"?
Look at the example in the article : $\omega + \omega$ is the limit of $\omega+n$ with $n$ finite ordinal.
So $\omega + \omega$ is the limit of the set $S = \{ \omega + n\,|\, n\in \omega\}$, and $S$ is indeed smaller than $\omega+\omega$ since $S\simeq \omega$ as an ordered set.
In general if $\alpha$ is the limit of a set $S$ of ordinals, then $S$ must be well-ordered, so $S\simeq \beta$ for some ordinal $\beta$. The definition you highlighted says that if $\alpha$ is regular, you can never take $S\subset \alpha$ and $\beta<\alpha$.
Of course this is in some sense optimal because for any $\alpha$, you can always take both $S = \alpha$ (but in this case $S\not\subset \alpha$), and $S = \{\alpha\}$ (but then $\beta = 1$).