Say I have an infinite sequence $S_1$ and another finite sequence $S_2$.
If I calculate $$ E = S_1 ∗ S_2 $$ does it somehow reflect whether $S_2$ appears somewhere in $S_1$?
What if an approximate version of $S_2$ does appear in $S_1$?
2026-04-03 07:40:18.1775202018
Can convolution be used to measure the difference between two sequences?
77 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in SEQUENCES-AND-SERIES
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