I was asked in the probability course:
Can a moment generating function of a random variable $Y$ be $\cos(u), -\infty <u<\infty$?
I proved that the first property of moment generating functions is satisfied, as in:
$1=M_Y(0) = \cos(0) = 1$
But I couldn't carry on logically. What is missing so I could prove that indeed it can be? (My intuition says it can)
Try looking at $E[Y^2]$ (which you know has to be $\geqslant 0$).