For a function $f(x+2\pi)=f(x)$, I have the usual FS coefficient $a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(t)\cos(nt)\, dt$ and equivalent for $b_n$.
Say I now have a function with period $P$, $g(x+P)=g(x)$ and use the change of variable $t=\frac{2\pi}{P}x$, $$ a_n=\frac{2}{P}\int_{-P/2}^{P/2}g(x)\cos\Big(\frac{2\pi n }{P}x\Big)\, dx $$
Is it correct to change the limits from $[-P/2,P/2]$ to $[0,P]$, i.e. \begin{align} a_n&=\frac{2}{P}\int_{-P/2}^{P/2}g(x)\cos\Big(\frac{2\pi n }{P}x\Big)\, dx\\ &=\frac{2}{P}\int_{0}^{P}g(x)\cos\Big(\frac{2\pi n }{P}x\Big)\, dx \qquad ? \end{align}
Yes. Since the function is periodic with period P, the graph of the function over the interval (-P/2,0) is identical to the graph over the interval (P/2,P).