Suppose I have to find the limit of function at $x_0 $, can I use sequence instead ?
( I wrote the divirtev of f but the question not only in that case)
\begin{gather*} \lim _{x\rightarrow x_{0}}\frac{f( x) -f( x_{0})}{x-x_{0}} =\lim\limits _{n\rightarrow \infty }\frac{f( x_{n}) -f( x_{0})}{x_{n} -x_{0}}\\ \\ \text{where : }\;\lim _{n\rightarrow \infty } x_{n} =x_{0} \end{gather*}
If yes what I need to check before changing the limit and when in what cases that is possible?
I think that it is ok but I can't find a way to explain that .
Given a function $h$, a point $x_0$, and a number $l$ asserting that $\lim_{x\to x_0}h(x)=l$ is equivalent to asserting that, whenever a sequence $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges to $x_0$, the sequence $\bigl(f(x_n)\bigr)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges to $l$.
Therefore, the following assertions are equivalente: