We define an inner product on a vector space $V$ such that for all $x,y,z \in V$ and for all $c \in F$ the following four properties are satisfied:
- $\langle x+y,z \rangle = \langle x,z \rangle + \langle y,z \rangle $
- $\langle cx,y \rangle = c\langle x,y \rangle$
- $\langle x,y \rangle = \overline {\langle y,x \rangle}$
- $\langle x,x \rangle > 0$ if $x \neq 0$
But the contraposition of property 4 is: $x = 0$ if $\langle x,x \rangle \le 0$. And there is a theorem: $\langle x,x \rangle = 0$ if and only if $x=0$.
I can understand that $\langle x,x \rangle = 0$ if $x=0$, but for $x=0$ if $\langle x,x \rangle = 0$, what if $\langle x,x \rangle < 0$? I mean $x=0$ if $\langle x,x \rangle < 0$.
I want to know
- Is there any $x$ that satisfies $\langle x,x \rangle < 0$?
- Or if it does not exist, how can I prove that $\langle x,x \rangle < 0$ doesn't exist?
Assume you have $x\in V$ such that $\langle x,x\rangle \leq 0$. We will prove that then we must have both $\langle x,x\rangle = 0$ and $x=0_V$ (I denote the zero element of $V$ by $0_V$ to avoid confusion with the scalar $0\in\mathbb{R}$).
From (the contrapositive of) 4., you know that $x=0_V$, as "if $x\neq 0_V$ then $\langle x,x\rangle > 0$."
But $0_v = c\cdot 0_v$ for $c=0$, so applying 2. we get $$ \langle x,x\rangle = \langle cx,x\rangle = c\langle x,x\rangle = 0\langle x,x\rangle = 0 $$ and therefore $\langle x,x\rangle=0$.
To summarize, for any $x\in V$ we have that $\langle x,x\rangle \leq 0$ implies ($x=0_V$ and $\langle x,x\rangle =0$). So there is no $x\in V$ such that $\langle x,x\rangle < 0$.