My book has this Theorem:
Let $A=\{v_1,v_2,\dots,v_n\}$ be an orthonormal subset of an inner product space $X$. Prove that $A$ is also linearly independent.
The proof it provides starts like this : $$\sum_{k=1}^n λ_kv_k=0\implies \left\langle\,\sum_{k=1}^n λ_kv_k,v_1\,\right\rangle=0$$ and then it shows that $λ_1=0$ and similarly you prove the same for the rest of $λ_k$. Can you explain to me how this implication works? How you go from $\sum_{k=1}^n λ_kv_k=0$ to $\left\langle\,\sum_{k=1}^n λ_kv_k,v_1\,\right\rangle=0$ ?
Thank you very much in advance.
Since $\sum_{k=1}^n\lambda_kv_k=0$,$$\left\langle\sum_{k=1}^n\lambda_kv_k,v_1\right\rangle=\langle0,v_1\rangle=0.$$