For e.g, if we have $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac {f(n)}{g(n)}$= $\frac 00$, $f:\mathbb {R} \rightarrow \mathbb {R}$ and $g:\mathbb {R} \rightarrow \mathbb {R}$ (note that $f$,$g$ are defined on $R$ so the derivative makes sense) so in essence, we're considering sequences.
2026-02-23 13:44:59.1771854299
Can one apply LHopitals' rule to differentiable functions defined over the naturals?
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As mentioned in the comments, the answer is yes. More generally, there is an "equivalence" between limits of functions and limits of sequences. In particular, the following is a theorem:
$$\lim_{x \to a}f(x) = L \text { if and only if for every sequence } \{x_n\} \text{ the following is true:}$$ $$ \text { if } \lim_{n \to \infty}x_n = a \text{ then } \lim_{n \to \infty} f(x_n)= L$$
Here we actually require $x_n \neq a$. This still holds true when $a,L \in \{\pm \infty\}$
EDIT- Just in the interests of being tedious, I should mention that we have to restrict $x_n$ to be in some open interval containing $a$ (or having $a$ as an endpoint if $a = \pm \infty$) on which $f$ is defined.