The following was an exam question on my algebraic topology course:
For the following settings, determine if $\overline{X}$ can be a covering of $X$:
$\overline{X} = \mathbb{RP}^3,X = \mathbb{RP}^2$
$\overline{X} = \mathbb{R}^5, X = \mathbb{RP}^5$
$\overline{X} = \mathbb{R}^2,X = \mathbb{RP}^2 \setminus \{P\}$
I don't think I can use the injection of the fundamental group of the cover to reject any of these cases. So do I need to provide explicit coverings?
1 no because for a covering map $p:X\rightarrow Y$, $X$ and $Y$ must have the same dimension,
is not possible since $S^5$ is the universal cover of $P\mathbb{R}^5$ and $\mathbb{R}^5$ is simply connected, the universal cover is unique up to homeomorphism.
Possible, $P\mathbb{R}^2-P$ is covered by $S^2-\{Q,Q'\}$ and the sphere minus two points is homeomorphic via the stereographic projection to $\mathbb{R}^2-Point$ and $\mathbb{R}^2-Point$ is homeomorphic to a cylinder via polar coordinates and the cylinder is covered by $\mathbb{R}^2$.