I just learned about Berkson's paradox, which says that if $A$ and $B$ are independent, then $P(A\mid B,A\cup B) < P(A\mid A\cup B)$ (knowing that $A$ or $B$ occur creates a negative dependence on $A$ and $B$.
The explanation on Wikipedia reminded me of the Monty Hall paradox, and I'm wondering if Berkson's paradox can be used to explain Monty Hall.
Not so much. They are somewhat different scenarios.
Berkson's paradox is that when $A$ and $B$ are independent, but we know that either one or the other happened, the conditional probability that $A$ happened is greater than the unconditional probability.
$$\mathsf P(A\mid A\cup B)~\geqslant~\mathsf P(A\mid B\cap(A\cup B)) ~=~ \mathsf P(A\mid B)~=~\mathsf P(A)$$
In the Monty Hall scenario $A$ is the event that the contestant didn't choose the prize door, and $B$ is the event that the host didn't choose the prize door. We are not given that one or the other did not choose the prize: we're given much the stronger condition that the host will not do so. $\mathsf P(B)=1$