Can we use the Taylor expansion method to find the limit of this sequence, like the following solution?
$ \lim _{n\to \infty }\left(n^2\left(arctan\left(\frac{a}{n}\right)-arctan\left(\frac{a}{n+1}\right)\right)\right)$
a is a constant number.
Can we use the Taylor expansion method to find the limit of this sequence, like the following solution?
$ \lim _{n\to \infty }\left(n^2\left(arctan\left(\frac{a}{n}\right)-arctan\left(\frac{a}{n+1}\right)\right)\right)$
a is a constant number.
On
Start writing $$\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n}\right)-\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n+1}\right)=\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n^2+n+a^2}\right)$$When $n$ is large, we have $$\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n^2+n+a^2}\right)\sim \arctan\left(\frac{a}{n^2}\right)\sim \frac{a}{n^2}$$ No much need of Taylor series except if you want to go beyond the limit.
In such a case, composition of Taylor series would give $$\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n}\right)-\arctan\left(\frac{a}{n+1}\right)=\frac{a}{n^2}-\frac{a}{n^3}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^4}\right)$$ which will show the limit and how it is approached.
The solution in your linked picture is correct (hoping that you truly understand what you are doing with the $o$-expressions). But there is no need to turn the multiplication by $n^2$ into a division by $\frac 1{n^2}$ which only complicates the expression unnecessarily.
You can also calculate the limit using the mean value theorem:
Using this, you can squeeze the expression.
For $a>0$ you have
$$\frac{1}{1+\left(\frac an\right)^2}\left(\frac an - \frac a{n+1}\right)\leq \arctan \frac an - \arctan \frac a{n+1} \leq \frac{1}{1+\left(\frac a{n+1}\right)^2}\left(\frac an - \frac a{n+1}\right)$$
Hence, multiplying by $n^2$ you get
$$\underbrace{\frac{n^2}{n^2+n}\frac{a}{1+\left(\frac an\right)^2}}_{\stackrel{n\to\infty}{\longrightarrow}\boxed{a}} \leq n^2(\arctan \frac an - \arctan \frac a{n+1} ) \leq \underbrace{\frac{n^2}{n^2+n}\frac{a}{1+\left(\frac a{n+1}\right)^2}}_{\stackrel{n\to\infty}{\longrightarrow}\boxed{a}}$$
For $a<0$ you only have to reverse the relation signs.