Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb R^n$ be a bounded, open set.
Let $u \in L^1_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$, and let $D_i u$ be its $i$-th weak partial derivative.
Is it possible that $D_i u \in L^2(\Omega)$ for every $i$, but $u \notin L^2(\Omega)$?
Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb R^n$ be a bounded, open set.
Let $u \in L^1_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$, and let $D_i u$ be its $i$-th weak partial derivative.
Is it possible that $D_i u \in L^2(\Omega)$ for every $i$, but $u \notin L^2(\Omega)$?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
Apparently you can characterize the open sets for which this fails, as those who fail to have a version of Poincare's inequality. See Definition 5.2 and Theorem 5.3 on page 328 of this paper of Lions-Deny here.
Warning: Notation in that paper is old. So if you're diving in: