For example. Rational, Irrational, Irrational, Rational...
I am not sure whether this is the case. My intuition says no, but I feel that this proof contradicts this.. I am trying to get my head wrapped around this. At which points is the function discontinuous?
Whenever you have two different real numbers -- rational or irrationals, that doesn't matter -- there will always be an infinity of both rational and irrational numbers between them.
In particular, for your question: It is not possible to have two different irrationals that don't have any rational number between them.