Since $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
can we now express $\pi$ in terms of this series by multiplying by $6$ and taking the square root? If not why is this not true?
I was wondering since I had an exam question that required to write $\pi$ in terms of some infinite sum. I did it exactly like this and got 0 points. So I thought maybe I'm doing something wrong by manipulating it this way
Yes, of course. $$\pi=\sqrt{6\left(1+\frac14+\frac19+\cdots\right)}$$