Is it true that $f$ is uniformly continuous if $f(z) \to f(z_0)$ uniformly as $z \to z_0$?
And I am a bit confused why all the definitions treat only the uniform convergence of sequences, why can't we let the index to be continuous.
If not, is there a way to express uniform continuity in terms of uniform convergence?
We say that a function $f$ is uniformly continuous on a metric space $X$ if for all $\epsilon>0$ there exists $\delta>0$ such that for all $x,y \in X$, $d(f(x),f(y))<\epsilon$ whenever $d(x,y)<\delta$.