Among the versions of the Incompleteness Theorem that I've seen are the following:
- Assuming the Peano axioms are consistent (which they are, if we accept the existence of the natural numbers), there are statements in the language of number theory which cannot be proven or disproven from the Peano axioms.
- Assuming ZFC is consistent, there are statements in the language of set theory which cannot be proven or disproven from ZFC.
What I'm not so clear on is the status of the following statement:
- Assuming ZFC is consistent, there are statements in the language of number theory whose set-theoretic interpretation cannot be proven or disproven from ZFC.
Since not every statement in set theory is the interpretation of a statement in number theory, this doesn't seem to follow from the first two.
Gödel's proof gives an explicit construction for a statement in a given (sufficiently strong, and recursively axiomatizable) theory that cannot be proved or disproved in the theory.
It so happens that when the theory is ZFC the independent statement turns out to be one that is the set-theoretic representation of a purely number-theoretic statement. At least this is the case when you use the most natural way to establish that ZFC meets the condition of being "sufficiently strong".
Basically, "sufficiently strong" boils down to being able to represent certain basic number-theoretic constructions, and the Gödel sentence is then constructed as the representation of a particular number-theoretic property.