Since there is a rational number between any two irrational numbers, so can we say that rational number and irrational number have the same cardinality?
2026-04-02 03:48:35.1775101715
Cardinality of rational number and irrational number
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Of course NOT.
The argument is not correct. For example, I can say there always exists a rational number between any two distinct real numbers, but apparently $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{R}$ don't have the same cardinality.