Let $X$ be a projective variety and $D$ a Cartier divisor on $X$ so that $D\sim_\mathbb{Q} 0$. Is it true that $D$ is itself linearly equivalent to zero?
2026-04-06 09:50:58.1775469058
Cartier divisor $\mathbb{Q}$-trivial
94 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ALGEBRAIC-GEOMETRY
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