Cauchy's theorem says that if $G$ is a finite group with $p | |G|$ (when $p$ is prime), then $G$ contains an element of order $p$.
When following the proof from wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%27s_theorem_(group_theory) (proof 2),
They conclude that there exists an orbit $O(x)$ of size $1$ such that $x\neq (e,e,...,e)$. But why that means that $x = (a, a, ..., a)$ for some $a\in G$? Why can't $x$ be $x = (g_0, ..., g_{p-1})$ for different $g_i$?
Thanks.
Take an element $\;(x_1,...,x_p)\in X\;$ . If its orbit has only one element, it means that if $\;C_p=\langle z\rangle\;$ then $$(x_1,...,x_p)=z(x_1,...,x_p)=(x_2,...,x_p,x_1)=z^2(x_1,...,x_p)=(x_3,...,x_p,x_1,x_2)=\ldots$$
and we get that $\;x_1=x_2=\ldots=x_p\;$, so the element is in fact of the form $\;(x,x,...,x)\;$ .