I am having a debate with some people on statistical significance of a certain event.
It is based on a real world situation, namely the AstraZeneca vaccine and the incidence of Transverse Myelitis.
As far as I know the trial invovled two groups with about 25,000 people in each group. (50,000 people altogether).
In the vaccine group there were two incidences of Transverse Myelitis, and in the placebo group there was one incidence.
Without going into the maths I can clearly see that there is no statistical significance of Transverse Myelitis in these two groups. The numbers are just too small.
Can anyone give me a basic mathematical breakdown of this situation? I would just like to back up my suspicions with some cold hard maths.
Thank you.
Suppose you "randomly" selected from the general population until you got exactly 3 people with TM. Now (randomly) split the group into 2 equal groups. What is the probability that the sick people will be split 1:2? Since there is 0.5 probability for each TM patient to be in either of the groups, the probability to see exactly 2 in a specific group is 3/8. That is not too bad. If you ask what is the probability to have 0:3 or 1:2, the odds increase to exactly 1/2 ( just from symmetry).