Remark: Initially, I have incorrectly copied over the problem. The edit below shows the correct one and how I checked that the function really does satisfy the "new" pde.
I have a pde of the following form
$$xu_{x}+yu_{y}+xyu_{z}=0$$
with the boundary condition $$u(x,y,0)=x^2+y^2.$$
I solved the pde with the method of characteristic and got the solution $$u(x,y,z)=x^2+y^2-2(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x})z.$$
However, the other part of this problem asks me to explain the following.
We know that $u$ is constant along characteristics and we know that $u(x,y,0)\geq0$ then why is $u(1,1,1)=-2$.
What I was thinking is that even though we know that $u$ is going to be constant on each characteristic the fact that $u(1,1,1)=-2$ means that no characteristic curve begging on $(x,y,0)$ will pass through the point $(1,1,1)$. Am I correct in thinking this is the answer or is there something else that I forgot about.
EDIT: Just to check that the solution really does satisfy the pde:
$$x(2x-2\frac{z}{y}+2\frac{yz}{x^2})+y(2y-2\frac{z}{x}+2\frac{xz}{y^2})-2xy(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x})=$$ $$=x^2-\frac{xz}{y}+\frac{yz}{x}+y^2-\frac{yz}{x}+\frac{xz}{y}-x^2-y^2=0$$ Which really does satisfy the equation.
$$xu_x+yuy+xyu_z=0$$ Charpit-Lagrange system of characteristic ODEs : $$\frac{dx}{x}=\frac{dy}{y}=\frac{dz}{xy}=\frac{du}{0}$$ A first characteristic equation comes from $\frac{du}{0}\:$finite $\implies\:du=0$. $$u=c_1$$ A second characteristic equation comes from solving $\frac{dx}{x}=\frac{dy}{y}$ : $$\frac{y}{x}=c_2$$ A third characteristic equation comes from $\frac{dx}{x}=\frac{dy}{y}=\frac{ydx+xdy}{yx+xy}=\frac{dz}{xy}\quad\implies\quad \frac12 d(xy)=dz$ $$xy-2z=c_3$$ The general solution of the PDE expressed on the form $c_1=F(c_2,c_3)$ is : $$\boxed{u(x,y,z)=F\left(\frac{y}{x}\:,\:xy-2z\right)}$$ $F(X,Y)$ is an arbitrary function of two variables.
CONDITION : $u(x,y,0)=x^2+y^2$ $$x^2+y^2=F\left(\frac{y}{x}\: , \: xy\right)$$ With $X=\frac{y}{x}$ and $Y=xy$ $\quad\implies\quad$ $x^2=\frac{Y}{X}$ and $y^2=XY$. $$F(X,Y)=x^2+y^2=\frac{Y}{X}+XY$$ So the function $F(X,Y)$ is known now. We put it into the above geheral solution where $X=\frac{y}{x}$ and $Y=xy-2z$. $$u=\frac{xy-2z}{\frac{y}{x}}+\frac{y}{x}(xy-2z)$$ $$u=x^2+y^2-2z\left(\frac{x}{y}+\frac{y}{x} \right)$$ This is exactly the result that you obtained.