Pick out the uniformly continuous functions:
$$ \begin{array}{lll} (a) \quad& f(x) = \cos x \cos \pi x & x \in(0, 1)\\ (b) & f(x) = \sin x \cos \pi x & x \in(0, 1)\\ (c) & f(x) = \sin^2 x & x \in(0, \infty)\\ (d) & f(x) = \cos x \cos \left(\frac\pi x\right) & x \in(0, 1)\\ (e) & f(x) = \sin x \cos \left(\frac\pi x\right) & x \in(0, 1)\\ \end{array} $$
We can solve these by knowing these things
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$$(a)\quad f(x)=\cos x \cos(\pi x),\quad x\in(0,1)$$ The derivative of this function is $$f'(x)=-\sin x\cos(\pi x)-\pi \sin(\pi x) \cos x$$ This functions derivative is bounded by $[-\pi-1,\pi+1]$, hence it's Lipschitz continuous.
$$(b)\quad f(x)=\sin x\cos (\pi x),\quad x\in(0,1)$$ The derivative of this function is $$f'(x)=\cos x\cos(\pi x)-\pi \sin x \sin(\pi x)$$ This functions derivative is bounded by $[-\pi-1,\pi+1]$, hence it's Lipschitz continuous.
$$(c)\quad f(x)=\sin^2 x,\quad x\in(0,\infty)$$ The derivative of this function is $$f'(x)=\sin(2x)$$ This functions derivative is bounded by $[-1,1]$, hence it's Lipschitz continuous.
$$(d)\quad f(x) = \cos x\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right),\quad x\in(0,1)$$
The limit below is undefined, hence the function is not uniformly continuous
$$\lim_{x\to0_+} \cos x\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right)=\color{gray}{\text{undefined}}$$
$$(d)\quad f(x) = \sin x\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right),\quad x\in(0,1)$$
The limits below are defined, hence the function is uniformly continuous
$$\lim_{x\to0_+} \sin x\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right)=0$$ $$\lim_{x\to1_-} \sin x\cos\left(\frac\pi x\right)=-\sin 1$$