I am not sure whether my answer to the following question is correct or not. The question is,
Theorem. Suppose that $b^2 \gt 4ac$. Then the quadratic equation $ax^2 + bx + c = 0$ has exactly two real solutions.
To give an instance of the theorem, you must specify values for $a$, $b$ and $c$, but not $x$. Why?
I found some answers online but they used math I haven't seen yet. My answer is,
The sentence 'the quadratic equation $ax^2 + bx + c = 0$ has exactly two solutions' transcribed to logic is,
$\exists x_1,x_2 \in \mathbb R (ax_1^2 + bx_1 + c = 0 \ \land \ ax_2^2 + bx_2 + c = 0 \ \land \ \forall y((y \neq x_1 \lor y \neq x_2) \rightarrow ay^2 + by + c \neq 0) $
You do not need to give a value for $x$ because it doesn't occur freely.
Is this right? And also is the transcription right?
Because the theorem says :
Thus, an instance of the above equation will be obtained instantiating the leading universal quantifiers with three individual real numbers, says : $a=1, b=3, c=2$.
The result will be the individual equation :
whose roots are : $-1,-2$.
The roots must not be "specified" because they must be computed from the individual equation.
In fully symbolic form the theorem will be :