I have the following series $\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nn}{n^2+1}$ which I am checking for convergence.
My working:
$\lim_{n\to\infty}|a_n|=0$ where $a_n=\frac{(-1)^nn}{n^2+1}$.
Doesn't that mean $\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^nn}{n^2+1}$ is absolutely convergent? My book says it's conditionally convergent. What am I missing?
The alternating series test shows that the original series converges, as you have shown. However, for $n\ge1$, $$\frac n{n^2+1}=\frac1{n+1/n}\ge\frac1{n+1}$$ and so $\sum_{n=0}^\infty|a_n|>\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n+1}$, which diverges. The original series thus only conditionally, not absolutely, converges.