I was unable to solve this particular problem which asks to find the valid first order logic among below:
$\forall x(P(x)\to Q(x))\to (\forall xP(x)\to\forall xQ(x))$
$\exists x(P(x) \lor Q(x))\to (\exists xP(x) \to \exists xQ(x))$
$\exists x(P(x)\land Q(x)) \leftrightarrow (\exists xP(x)\land \exists xQ(x))$
$\forall x \exists y P(x,y) \to \exists y \forall xP(x,y)$
I interpret it as follows:
$P(x)$: $x$ is a princess
$Q(x)$: $x$ is a queen
$\forall x(P(x)\to Q(x))$: Anyone, who is a princess, is queen.
$\forall xP(x)\to\forall xQ(x)$: If everyone is princess, then everyone is queen.
$\exists x(P(x) \lor Q(x))$: Someone is princess or queen (or both (as it is inclusive OR)).
$(\exists xP(x) \to \exists xQ(x))$: If someone is princess then someone is queen.
$\exists x(P(x)\land Q(x))$: Someone is (both) princess and queen.
$(\exists xP(x)\land \exists xQ(x))$: Someone is princess and someone (could be different one than the princess) is queen.
This I know for sure is incorrect:
$\forall x \exists y P(x,y) \not \to \exists y \forall xP(x,y)$:
But I dont find any of these interpretations make any of four options valid. Am I making mistake?
The first one is correct. Keeping your example, if everyone who is a princess is also a queen, then if everybody is a princess then everybody is a queen ;)