I recently had a lecture in a proof class where we were proving a Theorem of the form
Theorem 6.18 Let condition be true. Then the following are equivalent.
a) Statement 1
b) Statement 2
c) Statement 3
d) Statement 4
e) Statement 5
When we began to prove the theorem in the following manner of showing $a\implies b$ and then $b \implies c$ and so forth until $e\implies a$
Is this valid? It seems circular in essence since we assumed $a$ to prove everything.
"The following are equivalent" means that the following statements share the same truth value. That is, if any one of the statements is true then all are true, and if any one is false then all are false. So you can prove $a\implies b$ and $b\implies c$ etc. to obtain a loop of implications, which allows you to go from any one statement to any of the others. For instance, if $b$ is true, then in the proof we showed $b\implies c\implies d\implies e\implies a$ so that the other four statements are true.
The statement of the theorem is not saying "the following are all true", and so the proof is not showing this. There is a difference between a statement being true and it being equivalent to another statement. For example, consider the well-known result:
This statement gives a logical equivalence between $(1)$ and $(2)$, however it is not claiming that $(1)$ and $(2)$ always hold; indeed not every function is continuous, but every continuous function satisfies $(2)$ and vice-versa.