Related to the question Proof that Laplacian is surjective $\mathcal{P}^n\to\mathcal{P}^{n-2}$, I know in general that the surjectivity is defined to be : $\forall f \in \mathcal{P}^{n-2}$, $\exists \hat{f} \in \mathcal{P}^n$ such that $\Delta \hat{f}=f$. However, in the uncookedfalcon's answer, he seems using another definition of surjectivity. Is there anyone could explain to me how he proves the surjectivity of $\Delta : \mathcal{P}^k \to \mathcal{P}^{k-2}$?
Thanks in advance!
They are using the same definition of surjectivity, but also implicitly using an important lemma:
This is a good exercise. HINT: let $w\in W$; we want to find $v\in V$ such that $f(v)=w$. Since $B$ is a basis for $W$, we can write $w$ as a linear combination of elements of $B$. Do you see how to proceed from here?
I should note that this isn't really a fact about vector spaces, but general algebraic structures:
This is of course a bit informal, but it can be made formal (and proved!) in a number of ways.