The question asked here mentions:
When the polynomial ring Z[x] is quotiented by the ideal (2,x) we get a field as $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x,2) \cong \mathbb Z/(2) \cong \mathbb{Z}_2$ which is a field.
I am not being able to flesh out my answer and connect the dots.
I know that $\frac{\mathbb Z[x]}{\langle x,2 \rangle }= \frac{\frac{\mathbb Z[x]}{\langle x \rangle }}{\frac{\langle 2,x \rangle}{\langle x \rangle}}$.
From here, I can individually show that: $\frac{\mathbb Z[x]}{\langle x \rangle} \cong \mathbb Z,$
and that, $\frac{\langle 2,x \rangle}{\langle x \rangle} \cong \langle 2 \rangle.$
How do I conclude that, $\frac{\frac{\mathbb Z[x]}{\langle x \rangle}}{\frac{\langle 2,x \rangle}{\langle x \rangle}} \cong \mathbb Z_{2}$?
It seems like I am trying to prove something in this format: $\frac{I}{J} \cong \frac{K}{H}$ because $I \cong K$ and $J \cong H.$ (I believe, this basic concept is essentially what my doubt is)
Am I thinking about this the wrong way?
It's not the maximal ideal, there are others: more generally $(x,p)$ is a maximal ideal and $\mathbb Z[x]/(x,p)\cong\mathbb Z_p$ is a field.
From what you did, the final step is merely that $\mathbb Z/(2)\cong\mathbb Z_2$.
In the linked answer there is a direct proof, which you can generalize, that this ideal is maximal. It is also easy to prove that an ideal is maximal if and only if $\mathcal R/\mathscr I$ is a field.
Your last statement is false: consider $\mathbb Z/(2)\cong \mathbb Z_4/(2)$.