I know that $\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}~b^{k}=(b+1)^n$, because the terms in the binomial expansion of $(b+1)^n$ are exactly the terms in the summation.
Could we conclude that $\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}~b^{n-k}=(b+1)^n$ as well, if we instead make an expansion on $(1+b)^n$? Does this make any sense as an explanation?
$$LHS=\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}b^{n-k}=\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose n-k}b^{n-k}$$
Now let $k'=n-k$
$$LHS=\sum_{k'=0}^n {n\choose k'}b^{k'}=(1+b)^n$$