Is there a closed form for $I=\int_0^1\left(\frac1x-1\right)^x\mathrm dx\approx 0.838104577482$ ?
That is, can $I$ be expressed in terms of known functions (elementary or otherwise) or established constants? I know this is not is not a strict definition of "closed form"; I'm just trying to see what can be said about this integral.
Wolfram does not give a closed form.
Here is the graph of $y=\left(\frac1x-1\right)^x$.
(It is close to the cubic curve $y=4x^3-8x^2+3x+1$ for $0<x<1$.)
Context
I'm interested in Pascal's triangle, in particular, numbers that represent the entire triangle.
I found that if we take the $n$th root of each number in Pascal's triangle, where $n$ is each number's row number, then the mean value of the resulting numbers for the entire triangle is $2\int_0^1\left(\frac1x-1\right)^x\mathrm dx\approx 1.67620915496$. I'm wondering if this value has a closed form.
Related fun fact: If we take the log of the $n$th root of each number in Pascal's triangle, where $n$ is each number's row number, then the mean value of the resulting numbers for the entire triangle is $\dfrac12$ and the variance is $\dfrac{21-2\pi^2}{36}$.
Related integrals
$\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^x}\mathrm dx\approx 1.2913$ (which equals $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^n}$) does not have a closed form.
$\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{x^x}\mathrm dx\approx 1.9955$ does not have a closed form (but it can be shown to be less than $2$).

$\DeclareMathOperator\W{W}$ After a bit of integral algebra and an inverse substitution, one uses the product logarithm $\W(x)$:
$$\int_0^1\left(\frac1x-1\right)^xdx=\int_0^1\frac{dx}{\W(-x\ln(x))+1}$$
Also, Lagrange reversion, after simplification, gives:
$$\frac1{\W(x)+1}=1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-nx)^n}{n!},|x|<\frac1e$$
Therefore:
$$\int_0^1\frac{dx}{\W(-x\ln(x))+1}= \int_0^1 1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(nx\ln(x))^n}{n!}dx,x\ne\frac1e$$
The single point where the series diverges can be ignored. The integral then is:
$$\boxed{\int_0^1\left(\frac1x-1\right)^xdx=1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-n)^n}{(n+1)^{n+1}}}$$
To put it in terms of a “sophomore dream” type result, the OP’s mean is:
$$\boxed{\int_0^1\frac{(1-x)^{x-1}}{x^x}dx=2+2\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(1-n)^{n-1}}{n^n}}$$
shown here: