I have stumbled onto an interesting integral$$\int_0^\infty \sin(x)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)dx$$ which I noticed graphically that it appears to be $1$, but I have no idea on how to evaluate it. Maybe it could be done with the use of Bessel Functions? Any help is appreciated.
Closed form of $\int_0^\infty \sin(x)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)dx$?
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Maple gets the answer $$ \frac{\pi}{2} J_1(2) $$ where $J_1$ is the Bessel function of first order. It says it used the "meijerg" method.
On
Consider $$F(a,b) = \int_0^{\infty}\sin(ax)\sin\left(\frac{b}{x}\right)\,dx$$
Now, the Laplace transform of $F$ as a function of $b$,
$$\mathcal{L}(F)=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{x\sin(ax)}{1+s^2x^2}dx=\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{e^{-\frac{a}{s}}}{s^2}$$
The last integral is computed in this site many times.
Finally, to invert the Laplace transform to recover $F(a,b)$ we use the inspection method.
That means that we'll look at the table Laplace transform pairs.
In this case we have good luck,
$$F(a,b) =\frac{\pi}{2}\sqrt\frac{b}{a}J_1(2\sqrt{ab})$$
where $J_1(x)$ is the Bessel Function of the First Kind
I'm pretty sure I remember doing this one before...
Ah, there it is. AoPS link.
Quoting myself:
Doing it a second time? It took longer to find the old post than to reedit it for this site's formatting.