I have a question about closure and convergence of sequences.
The theorem is:
(a) For any set $S$ $\subseteq$ $R^n$, a point $a$ in $R^n$ belongs to $cl(S)$ if and only if $a$ is the limit of a sequence {$x_k$} in $S$.
(b) A set $S$ $\subseteq$ $R^n$ is closed if and only if every convergent sequence of points in $S$ has its limit in $S$.
I don't understand the proof from "if $a$ is the limit of a sequence {$x_k$} in $S$" to "a point $a$ in $R^n$ belongs to $cl(S)$". The proof reads:
Assume that $a =\lim_{x\to\infty}x_k$ for some sequence {$x_k$} in $S$. We claim that $a \in cl(S)$. Indeed, for any $r>0$ we know that $x_k \in B(a;r)$ for all large enough $k$. Since $x_k$ also belongs to $S$, it follows that $B(a;r) \cap S \neq \emptyset$. Hence $a \in S$.
I know that $a$ is a boundary point and therefore in $cl(S)$ if $B(a;r) \cap S \neq \emptyset$. But I thought this condition must be true for all $B(a;r)$. In this case, it is only true when $k$ is sufficiently large so that $x_k \in B(a;r)$. Could someone let me know where I am going wrong?
Thank you for your help.
$$a\in cl(S)\iff$$ $$( \forall r>0) \;\; S\cap B(a,r)\ne \emptyset$$
$$\iff (\forall n>0) \;\; (\exists s_n\in S) \; : d(a,s_n)<\frac 1n$$
$$\iff a=\lim_{n\to+\infty}s_n$$