Let $C[0,1]$ be endowed with the $L_1$ norm. I am trying to prove/disprove that $S=\{f\in C[0,1]:\;f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0\}$ is closed.
I am pretty sure it is, so I considered a convergent sequence $f_n\in S$ and I am trying to show that $f$ must also be in $S$. Intuitively I can see that we cannot escape $S$ without violating continuity, but I am having trouble putting this into a proof.
If $f(\frac{1}{2})>0$ then we can find $|f(\frac{1}{2})-f(x)|<\epsilon$ for $x$ in an interval around $\frac{1}{2}$, and let $\lambda=\inf |f(\frac{1}{2}-f(x)|$ on that interval. Similarly we can find say $|f_n(x)|<\lambda/2$ when $x$ on an interval $I_n$ around $\frac{1}{2}$. The trouble is I can't see why $f_n$ couldn't "cancel" most of $f$ on the interval so that $||f_n-f||_1<\epsilon$ too.
Could anyone help with this?
$S$ is not closed. Consider $$f_n(x)=\min\left(\left\lvert n\left(x-\frac12\right)\right\rvert,1\right)$$
$f_n\in C[0,1]$ and $$\forall n\ge 2,\quad\int_0^1 \lvert 1-f_n(x)\rvert\,dx =\frac1n$$
So $f_n\to 1$ in $L^1$ norm, but $1\notin S$.
It is actually dense: you can show that, for all $g\in C[0,1]$, $f_n\cdot g\to g$ in $L^1$ norm (recall that $\lVert g\rVert_\infty$ is finite) and $f_n\cdot g\in S$.