In Lectures on Symplectic Geometry by AC da Silva, we have the following:
$\textbf{Moser Theorem}$: Suppose that a manifold $M$ is compact, the 2-forms $\omega_0$ and $\omega_1$ on $M$ are such that $[\omega_0] = [\omega_1]$ and the 2-form $\omega_t$ where $\omega_t = (1-t)\omega_0 + t \omega_1$ is symplectic for each $t \in [0,1]$. Then $\exists$ an isotopy $\rho: M \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow M$ such that $\rho_t^{*} \omega_t = \omega_0$ $\forall$ $t \in [0,1]$.
Why would we need $[\omega_0] = [\omega_1]$? In the proof, I get that it is used directly to say there exists a 1-form $\mu$ such that $\omega_0-\omega_1 = d\mu$ but, it still isn't intuitively clear why this condition on the cohomology class is so essential to the Moser Trick. Thank you all in advance for any pointers.
Maybe you should read the paragraph just before, I can't say more than her I think. If you require that there is a symplectomotphism homotopic to the identity then the equality of cohomology class is a necessary condition, and often one ask himself if it is a sufficient condition: it is not except with further hypothesis.