Let $f:X \to Y$ be a affine, open, surjective, finite map between projective varieties. Is it true that, for any $i \ge 0$, $H^i(X,\mathbb{Q}) \cong H^i(Y,\mathbb{Q})$?
2026-03-26 17:30:11.1774546211
Cohomology for affine open maps
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