On the Wikipedia page about Poker probabilities for 7-card poker hands (Link) it says the following for the Royal Flush: \begin{equation*} \binom{4}{1} \binom{47}{2} \end{equation*} First we choose 1 of the 4 suits, then the next 5 cards are given and then we could have anything for the last two cards.
For the Straight Flush it says this: \begin{equation*} \binom{9}{1} \binom{4}{1} \binom{46}{2} \end{equation*} First we choose the top rank of our straight (5, 6, ..., King), then we choose the suit and finally the last two cards could be anything. BUT why do we have 2 out of 46 and not 47 as for the Royal Flush?
Your link says
So the two unused cards can be anything except the five making up the straight flush and the card of the flush suit immediately above the straight flush which would make it a different hand. So there are $52-5-1=46$ other cards and you choose two of these.
There is nothing above an Ace so in a royal flush you choose two from $52-5=47$.