I encountered the following exercice:
Suppose $f$ is a quadratic function of the form $f(x)=ax^2+b$ with $a\neq 0$. Show that if $g(x)=c x^2+d$ with $c\neq 0$ is another function commuting with $f$ then $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x$.
Starting with the definition of commuting function
$$(f\circ g)(x)=(g\circ f)(x),\quad \textrm{for all } x$$
and using the fact that two polynomials are equal as functions if all corresponding coefficients are equal I obtain the relation:
$$ad+b=cb+d$$
But I cannot figure out how to proceed. Thanks for any ideas.
Note that$$f\bigl(g(x)\bigr)-g\bigl(f(x)\bigr)=-a^2 c x^4-2 a b c x^2+a c^2 x^4+2 a c d x^2+a d^2-b^2 c+b-d.$$So, since $f$ and $g$ commute, you have$$\left\{\begin{array}{l}a c^2-a^2 c=0\\2 a c d-2 a b c=0\\a d^2-cb^2+b-d=0.\end{array}\right.$$The first equation is equivalent at $ac(a-c)=0$; since $a,c\neq0$, it follows that $a=c$. On the other hand, the second equation is $2ac(d-b)=0$. Again, since $a,c\neq0$, this implies that $b=d$.