I have come across two notions of orientability :
Notion 1 : A smooth manifold $M$ of dimension $n$ is said to be orientable iff $\exists$ a nowhere vanishing smooth $n-$form.
The other notion in the context of $q-$sphere bundles (p.259 in Algebraic Topology by E.H.Spanier) is :
Notion 2 : Let $\xi$ be a sphere bundle with base space $B$ and total space pair $(E_\xi,\dot E_\xi)$. Then an orientation on $E$ is an element $U$ of $H^{q+1}(E_\xi,\dot{E_\xi};\mathbb{Z})$ which restricts to a generator of $H^{q+1}(p^{-1}(b),p^{-1}(b) \cap \dot{E_\xi};\mathbb{Z})$ for every $b \in B$ under the restriction map.
My question is :
Do these notions agree whenever they both make sense ? E.g. a smooth $q-$sphere bundle over a smooth manifold $B$ would then have two notions of orientability. Are these compatible ? If so, how ?