I am reading the following:
The first definition says a vector set is complete if $(y,x_a) = 0 \implies y \;\forall a$.
I thought the word "complete" usually refers to "the biggest and filling up" (Hilbert spaces are complete by definition, so that "complete" doesn't interfere with this one). What does the condition in the definition even mean? That $x_a$ is orthogonal to everything in the set? Does it have anything to do with extending a set to a basis?
Also what is the decomposition property they are talking about? The complement decomposition? Can someone sketch an outline of the proof. I just want to read the ideas.

Let $\text{span} \{x_\alpha\}=M$.
Assume that $M$ is dense in $V$. To show that $\{x_\alpha\}$ is complete.
Let $y\in H$ such that $\langle y,x_\alpha\rangle=0$.Since $M$ is dense in $V$ so there exists a sequence say $(z_n)_n$ in $M$ such that $z_n\to y$.
Now each $z_n=\sum_{i\in \mathscr I} c_ix_i;I\text{is finite}$. Then $\langle y,z_n\rangle=0\implies \langle y,y\rangle =0\implies y=0$
Conversely
IDEAS: Use that if $Y$ is any closed subspace of a Hilbert space $H$ then $H=Y\oplus Y^\perp$(Decomposition).