I am having difficulty to show that the function $m(\xi):= e^{i|\xi|^2}$ is not a Fourier multiplier on $L^p$ when $p\neq 2$.
Note that $m:\mathbb{R}^n\to \mathbb{C}$ is called an $L^p$ Fourier multiplier if $$\|T_m f\|_p := \|(m\hat{f})^\vee\|_p \leq C\|f\|_p$$ for some $C>0$, where $\hat{f}$ is the Fourier transform of $f$, and $f^\vee$ is its inverse Fourier transform.
Please help, thank you.
Intuition: this multiplier evolves $f$ by the Schrodinger equation by time one (after making Planck's constant one). And this maps the Dirac delta function to something whose absolute value is constant, which is a counterexample for $p=1$. So approximate the Dirac delta function by a narrow bell curve. This will work for $p<2$. For $p>2$, do the same argument backwards in time (i.e. what maps onto the Dirac delta function).
If $p < 2$, consider $f(x) = e^{-\frac1{2a} |x|^2}$ for $a>0$. Then $T_mf(x) = \left(\frac a{a+4i}\right)^{\frac n2} e^{-\frac1{2a+4i} |x|^2}$, that is, $|T_mf(x)| = \left(\frac{a^2}{a^2+256}\right)^{\frac n4} e^{-\frac{a}{2a^2 + 8} |x|^2}$. Thus if $a \ll 1$ $$ \|f\|_p \sim a^{\frac n{2p}} ,$$ $$ \|Tf\|_p \sim a^{\frac n2 -\frac n{2p}} .$$ Letting $a \to 0$, we see that $\|T_m\|_p / \|f\|_p \sim a^{n\left(\frac12-\frac1p\right)}\to \infty$.
If $p > 2$, consider $f(x) = e^{-\frac1{2a-4i} |x|^2}$ for $a>0$. Then $T_mf(x) = \left(\frac a{a-4i}\right)^{\frac n2}e^{-\frac1{2a} |x|^2}$. Argue as before.
Signs and constants might differ, depending upon which definition you use for the Fourier transform. Details may be wrong, but the idea should work.