Question :
Compute in closed form without use series
$I =\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi / 4} x\ln\left(\tan x\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{\cos^2 x}\right)\,dx$
I think use : $y=\tan x$ then $dy=\frac{1}{\cos^2 x}$
So : $I =\displaystyle\int_0^{1} \arctan x\ln\left(x\right)x^{2}\,dx$
But I find integration arctan
Please give me ideas to approach it .
With Maple I get $$ I = -\frac{\pi\,G}{4}-\frac{{\pi}^{2}}{48}+{\frac {25\,\zeta \left( 3 \right) }{64}}+\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{\ln\left( 2 \right)}{2} - \frac{\text{Re}\; {\rm Li}_3( i) }{2} \approx 0.03971 $$ where $G$ is Catalan's constant $$ G = \sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}{(2k+1)^2} \tag{1}$$ and $\text{Li}_3$ is the polylogarithm $$ \text{Li}_s(z) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{z^k}{k^s} \tag{2}$$
Is it counted as "without series" when I use (1) and (2)? And $\zeta(3)$ is also defined as a series.